1) The illusion associated with landing on a narrower than usual runway may result in the pilot flying a a) A) lower approach with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short. b) B) slower approach with the risk of reducing airspeed below VSO or landing hard. c) C) higher approach with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway. 2) Dew point fronts result from a) air density differences due to the humidity levels. b) air density due to temperature. c) temperatures aloft. 3) Where is a common location for an inversion? a) At the tropopause. b) In the stratosphere. c) At the base of cumulus clouds. 4) What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm? a) Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation which falls outside of the updraft. b) Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts. c) Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating. 5) The threshold wind speed in the jet stream for clear air turbulence is generally considered to be a) 100 kts. b) 110 kts. c) 120 kts. 6) What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough? a) Establish a straight course across the storm area. b) Climb or descend to a smoother level. c) Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible. 7) Which process causes adiabatic cooling? a) Expansion of air as it rises. b) Movement of air over a colder surface. c) Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. 8) If the crew van breaks down en route to the rest facility and delays arrival for nearly 2 hours, does the flightcrew member need to notify the certificate holder? a) No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 9 hours of uninterrupted rest. b) No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 8 hours rest. c) Yes, if the flightcrew member does not have the opportunity for 10 hours of uninterrupted hours free from duty. 9) Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? a) At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine b) At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. c) At least three landings must be made to a complete stop. 10) When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage? a) The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the baggage remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command. b) The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. c) The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember. 11) When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? a) When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. b) When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months c) 120 days after issue or renewal. 12) A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to a) Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. b) pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. c) Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH. 13) When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated? a) When priority has been given. b) Anytime an emergency occurs. c) When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace. 14) How does the stall speed (KCAS) vary as you climb from sea level to 33,000 feet? a) It varies directly with a change in altitude. b) It remains relatively unchanged throughout the climb. c) It varies indirectly with a change in altitude. 15) What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker? a) Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. b) Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. c) Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. 16) (Refer to Figure 241). Hot Spots are depicted on airport diagrams as a) squares or rectangles around "HS " and a number. b) circles or polygons around "HS " and a number. c) triangles or blocks filled with "HS " and a number. 17) The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at V(EF), at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol a) V(2min). b) V(1). c) V(LOF). 18) Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of a) turbine inlet temperature. b) shaft horsepower and jet thrust. c) propeller thrust only. 19) Arriving over the runway 10 knots over VREF would add approximately how many feet to the dry landing distance? a) 800 feet. b) 1,700 feet. c) 2,800 feet. 20) What is the primary purpose of a STAR? a) Provide separation between IFR and VFR traffic. b) Simplify clearance delivery procedures. c) Decrease traffic congestion at certain airports. 21) What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude? a) The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. b) The rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor. c) The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor. 22) The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is a) 3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition. b) 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. c) 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. 23) Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin a) may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net. b) must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. c) must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed. 24) An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? a) A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. b) Survival kit for each passenger. c) An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter. 25) For flight planning, a designated ETOPS alternate airport a) for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes. b) for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 3, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. c) for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. 26) Given: Pressure altitude 12,000 ft True air temperature +50°F From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is a) 11,900 feet. b) 14,130 feet. c) 18,150 feet. 27) When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? a) Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1. b) Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. c) Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. 28) Runway Status Lights (REL) are a) an independent light system. b) automatically activated. c) ATC tower controlled. 29) The lowest ILS Category II minimums are a) DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. b) DH 100 feet and RVR 1,000 feet. c) DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. 30) If flying a published GPS departure, a) the data base will contain all of the transition or departures from all runways. b) and if RAIM is available, manual intervention by the pilot should not be required. c) the GPS receiver must be set to terminal course deviation indicator sensitivity. 31) What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? a) A stable layer of air. b) An unstable layer of air. c) Air mass thunderstorms. 32) Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable? a) The parcel of air resists convection. b) The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill. c) As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. 33) You have just touched down on the runway faster than planned in the haze at night. You realize that you have just experienced a) an atmospheric distance illusion. b) a gravotopic height illusion. c) the elevator illusion. 34) While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as a) autokinesis. b) Coriolis illusion. c) the leans.

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